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Friday, September 11, 2009

Claim About Moses - The First Dowser?

Claim About Moses - The First Dowser?


Most people are familiar with the account about Moses taking a rod and striking a rock-mass and then having water come out of it. Here is the account:

"So Moses took the rod from before Jehovah, just as he had commanded him. After that Moses and Aaron called the congregation together before the crag, and he proceeded to say to them: "Hear, now, YOU rebels! Is it from this crag that we shall bring out water for YOU?" With that Moses lifted his hand up and struck the crag with his rod twice; and much water began to come out, and the assembly and their beasts of burden began to drink." -Numbers 20:9-11 (NWT)

However, some people actually believe that this was the first recorded instance of a water dowsing!

The Encyclopedia Americana even said the following: "MOSES, who brought forth water by striking a rock with a rod, has been called the first water dowser."

And in an early nineties publication of the magazine National Wildlife, it matter-of-factly called Moses' staff "a divining rod." Also some dowsers believe that their power comes from Moses.

But as for Moses being thought of as the first to use a divining rod...it was really quite the contrary. It was Moses himself who wrote down the command against divining:

"There should not be found in you anyone who...employs divination." -Deut. 18:10

Also, there was a big difference between what dowsers do and what Moses did. Many self-proclaimed dowsers today rely on a rod to search for hidden water; they follow it along, waiting for it to bob or jerk. But Moses never followed his staff around waiting for it to bob. He never actually searched for the water at all. Instead, God told Moses exactly where and how to get the water: "You must speak to the crag, that it may indeed give its water."-Numbers 20:8.

Monday, September 7, 2009

Salvation - Links to Information

Click on any of the following links to view:

SALVATION - Links to Information (INDEX; Watchtower Online Library)

Faith - Once Saved, Always Saved? (Search For Bible Truths)

Why did Jesus have to sacrifice his life? - What is the Ransom? (Search For Bible Truths)

Christ Jesus’ Role as Ransomer (Pastor Russell)

Jesus Saves - How? (Search For Bible Truths)

“You, O Jehovah, are good and ready to forgive.” (Pastor Russell)

Are some people permanently saved? (Search For Bible Truths)

What is faith, and is it the only thing required of us? (Search For Bible Truths)

Do Jehovah's Witnesses believe that only they will be saved? (Search For Bible Truths)

Do Jehovah's Witnesses Believe That They Are the Only Ones Who Will Be Saved? (Jehovah's Witnesses Questions and Answers; With reference to 11/1/08 WT article)

Is baptism a requirement for salvation? (Search For Bible Truths)

Are there scriptures that definitely show that some will never be saved? (Search For Bible Truths)

Once a person is saved, is he always saved? (Search For Bible Truths)

Isa. 43:11 / 2 Pet. 3:18 Jehovah only Savior; Jesus Savior (Search For Bible Truths)

Are there scriptures that definitely show that some will never be saved?

Are there scriptures that definitely show that some will never be saved?

2 Thess. 1:9, RS: "They shall suffer the punishment of eternal destruction and exclusion from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of his might."

Rev. 21:8, RS: "As for the cowardly, the faithless, the polluted, as for murderers, fornicators, sorcerers, idolaters, and all liars, their lot shall be in the lake that burns with fire and sulphur, which is the second death."

Matt. 7:13, 14, RS: "Enter by the narrow gate; for the gate is wide and the way is easy, that leads to destruction, and those who enter by it are many. For the gate is narrow and the way is hard, that leads to life, and those who find it are few."

Once a person is saved, is he always saved?

Once a person is saved, is he always saved?

Jude 5, RS: "I desire to remind you, though you were once for all fully informed, that he who saved a people out of the land of Egypt, afterward destroyed those who did not believe."

Matt. 24:13, RS: "He who endures to the end will be saved."

Phil. 2:12, RS: "As you have always obeyed, so now, not only as in my presence but much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling."

Heb. 10:26, 27, RS: "If we sin deliberately after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, but a fearful prospect of judgment, and a fury of fire which will consume the adversaries." (See also Hebrews 6:4-6)

Faith - Once Saved, Always Saved?

Faith, Believe, "Exercising Faith"

w90 12/1 p. 30 Questions From Readers:


• Why does the New World Translation at times render the Greek word pi·steu'o

as "believe" (like most translations) and at other times as "exercise [or put] faith in"?

This is done to reflect different shades of meaning that are expressed by the Greek word pi·steu'o.

For example, A Grammar of New Testament Greek, by James Moulton, notes that early Christians clearly recognized "the importance of the difference between mere belief . . . and personal trust." Both these thoughts can be expressed using the Greek word pi·steu'o.

Often, the different shades of meaning of pi·steu'o must be discerned from the context. At times, though, different grammatical constructions help us to see what the writer had in mind. For example, if pi·steu'o is followed merely by a noun in the dative case, the New World Translation usually renders it simply as "believe" - unless the context indicates something different. (Matthew 21:25, 32; but see Romans 4:3.) If pi·steu'o is followed by the word e·pi', "on," it is generally rendered "believe on." (Matthew 27:42; Acts 16:31) If it is followed by eis, "to" [or "into" - RDB], it is usually translated "exercise faith in." - John 12:36; 14:1.

This latter rendering (which reminds us that pi·steu'o is related to the Greek word pi'stis, "faith") is in harmony with a comment in An Introductory Grammar of New Testament Greek, by Paul Kaufman. This work says: "Another construction which is common in the New Testament (especially in John's Gospel) is pisteuw [pi·steu'o] with eij [eis] and the accusative case [as found at John 3:16] . . . The whole construction of eij plus the accusative must be translated rather than attempting to translate the preposition eij as an isolated word. Faith is thought of as an activity, as something men do, i.e. putting faith into someone."

* * * * *

The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology

("Indispensable for advanced theological students and scholars as well as for ordinary Bible Students." -

Christianity Today):

"pistij (pistis), faith; pisteuo (pisteuo), believe .... CL 1. (a) In classical Gk literature .... With reference to people, pisteuo means to obey." ....

"(b) Originally the word-group denoted conduct that honoured an agreement or bond. .... [p. 594]

"[NT] 2. Paul and the Pauline Tradition. .... `Faith' means receiving the message of salvation and conduct based on the gospel. .... [p. 601]

"4. The Understanding of Faith in the Rest of the NT. .... [James] demands renunciation of all conduct that conflicts with living faith and confession (1:6ff.). For him, faith and obedient conduct are indissolubly linked. Faith understood merely as trust and confession is not able to save. Only through obedience ... and conduct which fulfills the commandments of God does faith come to completion (James 2:22). .... For the thesis which Jas. wishes to argue is that `faith by itself, if it has no works, is dead' (2:17)." [pp. 603-605] - Vol. 1, Zondervan Publ., 1986.

* * * * *

The New Bible Dictionary (which Christianity Today describes as "true to the Bible as God's word" and "destined to become a standard that will be turned to often by students and ministers alike") says about pisteuo:

"The man who really believes God will, of course, act on that belief. In other words, a genuine belief that what God has revealed as true will issue in a true faith. .... [p. 367]

"Faith implies complete reliance on God and full obedience to God." [p. 368] - Tyndale House Publ., 1984.

* * * * *

The Theological Dictionary of the New Testament tells us about pisteuo:

"C. Faith in Judaism. 1. The OT Legacy .... The OT [Septuagint] term, however, carries a stronger element [than in even the classical Greek] of acknowledgment and obedience. [pp. 852, 853]

"D. The pistis Group in the NT. .... 1. Continuation of the OT and Jewish Tradition..... b. pisteuo as `to obey.' Heb. 11 stresses that to believe is to obey, as in the OT. Paul in Rom. 1:8; 1 Th. 1:8 (cf. Rom. 15:18; 16:19) shows, too, that believing means obeying. He speaks about the obedience of faith in Rom. 1:5, and cf. 10:3; 2 Cor. 9:13." [pp. 853, 854] - Kittel & Friedrich, Eerdmans Publ., 1992 reprint.

* * * * *

The Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament ("a standard in the field") also tells us:

"4100 .... a conviction, full of joyful trust, that Jesus is the Messish ... conjoined with obedience to Christ." - p. 511, Joseph H. Thayer, Baker Book House, 1977.

* * * * *

Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics

says concerning pisteuo specifically as found at John 3:16:

"John 3:16 paj o[ pisteuwn [eij]

everyone who believes [into]

The idea seems to be both gnomic and continual: `everyone who continually believes.'

This is not due to the present tense only, but to the use of the present participle

[pisteuwn] of pisteuw." - p. 620, Daniel B. Wallace, Zondervan Publ., 1996.

* * * * *

Dr. William Barclay discusses pisteuo as used at John 3:15 (also in present participle form, pisteuwn, as defined above by Wallace):

"So then belief [pisteuw] in Jesus has these three elements - [1] belief that God is our loving Father, [2] belief that Jesus is the son of God and therefore tells us the truth about God and life, and [3] unswerving and unquestioning obedience to Jesus." - p. 136, Vol. 2, The Gospel of John, Rev. ed., The Daily Study Bible Series, The Westminster Press, 1975.

* * * * *

Even Martin Luther tells us,

"It is impossible, indeed, to separate works from faith, just as it is impossible to separate heat and light from fire." And, "In chapter 12 [of Romans], Paul speaks of the true way of serving God. He shows that all Christians are priests,.... He then describes the outward conduct of Christians under the discipline of the spirit; how they must teach, preach ... and act towards friend, foe, and fellow-man. These are the works which a Christian does, for, as I have said, faith is not an inert thing." - from the Preface of the Epistle to the Romans as quoted in Martin Luther, selections from his writings, Doubleday Publishing, 1961, pp. 24 & 33.

* * * * *

So, much more is involved in real Faith than just passively believing something.

Notice this contrasting parallel in John 3:36:

"He who believes [pisteuwn] in [eij] the Son has eternal life; But

he who does not obey the Son shall not see life" - NASB.

We find pisteuwn used in a parallel sense to `obey' here. There has to be, at least, a strong element of obedience understood to be in the word pisteuwn, or the contrasting parallel used by John would be senseless.

* * * * *

Luther also said,

"Furthermore, every man is responsible for his own faith, and he must see to it for himself that he believes rightly." - Martin Luther, p. 385.

-RDB.

From "Christian Discussions" an on-line discussion group:

"Faith" – A Word of Action

One of the most absurd statements that we ever read was from a denominationalist who declared: "Faith is the only thing that one can do without doing anything." The affirmation is a textbook case of contradiction.

The following examples will clearly reveal that genuine faith is not a mere attitude; rather, it is a word of action.

1. Jesus was teaching in the city of Capernaum. The crowds so pressed around Him that some who sought His presence could not gain access to the Lord. Four enterprising men brought a lame friend, climbed to the rooftop of the house wherein Christ was teaching, and lowered their impotent companion through the ceiling. Significantly, the inspired writer comments: "And Jesus seeing their faith said unto the sick of the palsy, Son, your sins are forgiven" (Mark 2:5).

What did Christ see? He literally saw the action of these men (including the sick man who obviously endorsed the activity). But the action is called faith. In a similar vein, James challenged: "Show me your faith apart from your works, and I by my works will show you my faith" (Jas. 2:18).

2. John 3:16 is perhaps the best-known verse in the Bible, but it is one of the most misunderstood. "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth on him should not perish, but have eternal life."

Does the "belief" of this passage include obedience, or exclude it? A comparison of this verse with Hebrews 5:9 reveals that the former is the case. In John 3:16 believing results in eternal life. In Hebrews 5:9, eternal salvation is said to issue from obedience to Christ. It thus should be quite clear that the belief that saves is one that manifests itself in obeying the Son of God. True faith is not just a mental process.

3. Note this declaration from the Lord: "He that believeth on the Son hath eternal life; but he that obeyeth not the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abideth on him" (John 3:36 ASV).

We have cited the ASV here because it is more accurate in its rendition of the original language than is the KJV. The term in the latter portion of the verse is apeitheo, which, according to Balz & Schneider, literally means "to disobey" (118). In this passage "believing" is set in vivid contrast to disobedience.

Is not Christ suggesting that the one who obeys the Son is promised life, but the person who disobeys will not receive such?

Observe a similar usage in Acts 14:1, 2 ". . . a great multitude both of Jews and of Greeks believed. But the Jews that were disobedient stirred up the souls of the Gentiles, and made them evil affected against the brethren."

In the book of Hebrews we are informed that God was displeased with many rebellious Israelites who died in the wilderness. They were condemned because they were "disobedient" – yes, they were not allowed to enter the promised land due to their "unbelief" (Heb. 3:18, 19). Continuing that analogy, it will be those who have "believed" who will enter the final rest (4:3), but those who are "disobedient" will not (4:6).

The Bible knows nothing of true "faith" that is divorced from obedience.

4. When a jailor in the city of Philippi feared for his life during an earthquake that rocked the prison, he pled with Paul and Silas: "Sirs, what must I do to be saved?" God's messengers proclaimed to him the gospel. Evincing repentance (for having beaten his prisoners), the jailor washed their stripes. Subsequently, he and his family were immersed (Acts 16:31-33).

Significantly, this entire process is summed up in this fashion: "And he . . . rejoiced greatly, with all his house, having believed in God" (34). It is clear that the participle, "having believed," includes the jailor's repentance and his baptism.

5. The book of Romans demonstrates that faith is an action term. For example, Paul commends the "faith" of these saints, which, says he, is "proclaimed throughout the whole world" (1:8). As he concludes the epistle he again congratulates them: "For your obedience is come abroad unto all men" (16:19). Faith and obedience are parallel in these verses. In fact, at the beginning and end of the book, the expression "obedience of faith" stands like guardian sentinels, defining the character of biblical faith (1:5; 16:26). In Romans 10:16, those who refused to "obey the gospel" fulfilled Isaiah's prediction that some would not "believe" the divine report.

6. That the "faith" system of the New Testament is not merely a mental phenomenon is evidenced by Galatians 3:26, 27. There Paul declares: "For ye are all sons of God, through faith, in Christ Jesus. For [a conjunction of explanation] as many of you as were baptized into Christ did put on Christ."

Immersion was an integral part of the faith process. Later, to the same people, the apostle affirmed that the faith that avails is that which is "working through love" (Gal. 5:6). The fact of the matter is, believing itself is a work (cf. John 6:27-29; cf. 1 Thes. 1:3).

7. James shows the connection between faith and obedience when he writes: "Was not Abraham our father justified by works [obedience], in that he offered up Isaac his son upon the altar? You see that faith operated with his works [obedience], and by works [his obedience] was [his] faith made complete; and the scripture was fulfilled which says, And Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned unto him for righteousness; and he was called the friend of God" (Jas. 2:21-23).

If faith plus obedience constitutes one as a "friend of God," how would one be characterized who has faith minus obedience?

8. Those who possessed genuine intellectual-emotional faith were granted the "right to become" children of God (John 1:12), but they were not, by that faith, automatically constituted sons of God.

9. That "faith alone" is invalid as a means of redemption is revealed by a number of biblical examples.

(a) There were many Jews who "believed on" Christ (John 8:30,31), but their faith was not operative, hence, the Lord appropriately described them as children of the devil (8:44).

(b)There were those among the Hebrew rulers who "believed on him [Christ]," but because of Pharisaic pressure they would not confess their faith; they loved the glory of men more than that of God (John 12:42).

Will anyone contend that these proud egotists were saved simply because they "believed" (cf. Matt. 12:32)? What was the flaw in their theology?

(c)Luke records that when Christ was preached, "a great number that believed turned to the Lord" (Acts 11:21). The construction of the original language indicates that the "believing" was prior to the "turning," hence, turning to the Lord involved something in addition to their faith.

The Language Authorities

It is this type of biblical evidence that has compelled leading New Testament language authorities to acknowledge that "faith" is more than a mere philosophy of belief. Genuine faith cannot be separated from submission to the Lord.

Liddell & Scott show that the verb pisteuo (believe) can mean "to comply" (1273).

H. Cremmer stated that the noun pistis (faith), both in the Old and New Testaments "is a bearing towards God and His revelation which recognizes and confides in Him and in it, which not only acknowledges and holds to His word as true, but practically applies and appropriates it." (482).

W.E. Vine noted that pistis involves "a personal surrender" to Christ (71).

Lexicographer J.H. Thayer commented that pisteuo includes "a conviction, full of joyful trust, that Jesus is the Messiah" – the divinely appointed author of eternal salvation in the kingdom of God, conjoined with obedience to Christ." (511).

O. Michael has stated: "Faith understood merely as trust and confession is not able to save. Only through obedience . . . and conduct which fulfills the commandments of God does faith come to completion (Jas. 2:22)" (604).

Bultmann contended that "`to believe' is `to obey'" (205). He stressed that this is particularly emphasized in Hebrews 11:7. He further made this interesting comment: "According to Paul, the event of salvation history is actualized for the individual, not in pious experience, but in his baptism (Gl. 3:27-29). Faith makes it his. Hence faith is not at the end of the way to God, as in Philo. It is at the beginning" (217).

Alan Richardson declared that faith "is confident reliance on God. It is the act by which he lays hold on God's proffered resources, becomes obedient to what God prescribes, and, abandoning all self-interest and self-reliance, trusts God completely. . . . Obedience, conformity to what God prescribes, is the inevitable concomitant of believing" (75, 76).

Conclusion

The doctrine of salvation by "faith alone" does not have the support of Scripture. It has resulted from a sincere – but misguided – reaction to Roman Catholicism. Those who have embraced this philosophy should carefully restudy the question of salvation.

……………………………………………………

"Once Saved, Always Saved" (?)

1 Tim. 4:16 – After listing some of the things that Timothy must [NRSV] insist on and teach (4:11-4:15), Paul writes to him: "Pay close attention to yourself and to your teaching; continue in these things, for in doing this you will save both yourself and your hearers." – NRSV. [Emphasis added]. Although Paul believed Timothy was in a saved state at the moment, he did not consider it as something assured!

The Awake! Magazine covered this in a brief article:

Awake

! 4/8/1978:

The Bible's View

"Once Saved, Always Saved"—How Certain?

`THE "Son of Sam" killer terrorized New York city residents for more than a year, killing six random victims and wounding several others. Yet the person accused of the crime reportedly had been "saved" at a church meeting about four years before his reign of terror began.

`A former army friend of the suspect who had invited him to the church meeting relates that the new convert "came up to me grinning and laughing and saying, `Man, I'm saved.' Then we came back that same day for the evening service and he went forward again at the invitation [to accept Christ]. He told me afterward that he just wanted to make sure it [being "saved"] took."

Upon hearing the charges against this former member of her church, another member told the Associated Press: "I'm just thankful he was saved." Why? She declared: "The Bible says, once saved, always saved."—New York Post, August 25, 1977, p. 2.

`Does the Bible actually say, "Once saved, always saved"? No, it does not use those words in any specific text, but many sincere people believe that this is what the Bible teaches. And it is true that a number of Bible texts indicate that the basis for salvation is not one's works, but, rather, faith in Jesus Christ, together with God's "grace" and mercy. (Eph. 2:8, 9; 2 Tim. 1:9; Titus 3:4, 5) Additionally, Jesus himself said that "he that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life."—John 3:36, Authorized Version (AV); 1 John 5:13.

`From such references it is often reasoned that if one `has everlasting life,' he actually possesses it permanently; it cannot be lost, or, as many would have it: "Once saved, always saved." However, does this understanding fully express the Scriptural view of gaining everlasting life?

`Well, Christians concerned about their salvation may also wish to consider Jesus' declaration that "he that endureth to the end shall be saved." (Matt. 10:22; 24:12, 13; Mark 13:13, AV) And the apostle Paul comments similarly: "For we are made partakers of Christ, if we hold the beginning of our confidence stedfast unto the end."—Heb. 3:14, AV.

`How are we to reconcile these seeming disparities? Surely these servants of God were not contradicting themselves. Rather, were they not merely expressing the same understanding from different viewpoints? The apostle Paul provides the key to harmonizing these viewpoints.

`Time and again Paul likens the Christian's course to a "race" that must be run to the finish. "Let us run with patience the race that is set before us," he urged the Hebrews. (12:1, AV) To enter the race, sinners must take the steps necessary for salvation: hearing and accepting the Word of God, believing in Jesus Christ and his ransom sacrifice, repenting of their sins and being baptized. In this way, they get saved "from this crooked generation," as Peter exhorted those gathered at Pentecost. Unbelievers are outside the race, having failed to enter by getting "saved."—Acts 2:37-40, Revised Standard Version (RSV); 16:31-33; Rom. 10:13, 14.

`Once entered in the race by being "saved," a Christian takes "hold of the life which is life indeed." But is it possible to lose that grip on life? Paul answers with this question: "Do you not know that in a race all the runners compete, but only one receives the prize?" In the Christian race, Paul indicates the "one" who receives the prize is anyone who finishes the race. Therefore, Paul urges, "So run that you may obtain it." Then, using himself as an example to make the point of his illustration, he continues: "I pommel my body and subdue it, lest after preaching to others I myself should be disqualified."—1 Tim. 6:19; 1 Cor. 9:24-27, RSV.

`Evidently the apostle, who surely was a "saved" Christian, believed that even he could be "disqualified" from the race. Yet as long as he continued to `run that he might obtain' the prize, thus remaining in the race, salvation was assured. This is why Christians who remain in the race can be said to `have everlasting life.' But if they should ever quit the race, they are "disqualified," losing their hold on everlasting life.

`Hence, Paul follows up his remarks on the Christian's race by cautioning about the danger of overconfidence. Using the example of the Israelites who were saved through the Red Sea, yet fell to wrongdoing in the wilderness, he warned: "We ["saved" Christians] must not put the Lord to the test." Then, driving his point home, he declared: "Let any one who thinks that he stands take heed lest he fall." Yes, it could happen, even to "saved" ones!—1 Cor. 10:1-12, RSV.

`This is why, throughout his writings, Paul consistently emphasized his own need to stay in the race. For example, of his hoped-for reward of the resurrection, he said: "I do not consider that I have made it my own; but one thing I do, forgetting what lies behind and straining forward to what lies ahead, I press on toward the goal for the prize of the upward call of God in Christ Jesus." It was only after Paul neared the end of his life that he wrote: "I have finished the race, I have kept the faith." At this point in his life, he could finally say with confidence: "Henceforth there is laid up for me the crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous judge, will award me on that Day."—Phil. 3:11-14; 2 Tim. 4:6-8, RSV.

`Paul's view of his own salvation, then, is consistent with Jesus' comments mentioned earlier about `enduring to the end' to be saved.—See also Revelation 2:10; 3:11, 12, AV.

`The foregoing helps us to see why Paul repeatedly entreated "saved" Christians to be on guard. Their everlasting salvation was still at stake. Addressing the obviously "saved" Hebrew Christians who had been "illuminated" and who had "endured a great fight of afflictions," he warns: "If we sin willfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins." The sacrificial benefits that "saved" such persons, then, can be lost. Why? Because such a person "hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto [outraged, RSV] the Spirit of grace."—Heb. 10:26-32, AV.

`Yes, Christians who truly appreciate the salvation provided through Christ and God's grace will not be overconfident. They will strive to remain in the race like Paul and the other early Christians, whom he encouraged to "work out [their] own salvation with fear and trembling."'—Phil. 2:12, AV.

Quoted from Awake! - pp. 27-28.

…………………………………………….…………

Paul's "race for life" brings to mind Jesus' "narrow road." He said that only a few will even find the gate that leads onto the narrow, difficult path which leads to eternal life. He gave no guarantee even that once the path was found, the finder would actually stay on that difficult path that eventually leads to eternal life. – Matt. 7:13-14.

In fact, he indicated that many who evidently believed they were saved, were not even in consideration for everlasting life – Matt. 7:21-23.

God

Online Articles About Jehovah God From The Jehovah's Witnesses Official Website

Outline of Scriptures Showing That Jehovah The Father is God Alone

Know - Must Know Who God Is (Research file)

Is there only one God? Response to this question regarding monotheism

Why does God permit wickedness and suffering? Response to this question

Does God really care about us? Jehovah's Witneses Official Web Site responds to this question via the "Does God really care about us?" brochure

Israel - Israel's Essential Knowledge of God; The God of Judaism; First Christians WITHIN Judaism

Omnipresence (Research file)

Omnipresence

OMN

"Omnipresence"/ "Abiding In"/ "See Me: See Father"

God is a spirit person (see New Bible Dictionary - p. 427), which means that he does not have a material body, but a spiritual one: We read, "If there is a physical body, there is also a spiritual one" (1 Cor. 15:44; John 4:24). God, being an individual, a person with a spirit body, has a place where he resides, and so he could not be bodily present at any other place at the same time. Thus we read at 1 Kings 8:43 that the heavens are God's "dwelling place" - KJV. Also we see at Hebrews 9:24 that "Christ has entered ... into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God on our behalf." - RSV.

Moreover, the disciple Stephen and the Apostle John had visions of heaven in which they saw both God and Jesus. So God must be as much a person, an individual, as Jesus Christ is (Acts 7:56; Rev. 5:1, 9).

Those Christians who will live in heaven are assured that they will see God and also be like him, showing that Jehovah is truly a person and has a body as well as a certain location. - 1 John 3:2.

Some may have been confused due to the fact that God is all-seeing; also his power can be felt everywhere (2 Chron. 16:9). An illustration of this might be the comparison of an electric power plant to God. It has a certain location on a certain street in a certain city. But its power can be distributed out over the entire city, providing light, power, communications, etc. And so it is with God. He has a certain location in heaven, but his active force, his holy spirit, furnishes enlightenment, and its force can be felt throughout the entire universe so that God can perfectly "see" any particle of his universe and powerfully act (through that spirit force) anywhere in that universe.

Although the Bible repeatedly warns that God's worshipers are not to presume to make any likeness of him, it does use human characteristics in describing God. Thus the Bible speaks of God's face, eyes, ears, nostrils, mouth, arms, and feet. Of course, such descriptive figurative language does not mean that his spirit body actually has the same kind of members as fleshly human bodies have. But such expressions are helpful to us, inasmuch as Jehovah God becomes more real to us.

Some trinitarians attempt to prove that Jesus shares with the Father an "untransferrable quality of God" known as "omnipresence." But the scriptures they cite (such as John 6:56 and 14:23) do not indicate omnipresence for either God or Jesus. Certainly the most likely meaning for Jesus' "dwelling" or "abiding in" (or with) people is that they have accepted his sacrifice for them and do their utmost to live in harmony (in union) with Jesus' example and teachings! It shows a union of agreement in purpose and will. Jesus' will has become their very own.

It is the same concept as used for all those who "walked with God" or who were "with God" or who could say "God is with us" (analyze Phil. 4:9). It did not mean they were literally in the personal physical presence of God but that they were sincerely trying to follow, or be in union with, God's purposes and commandments, thereby pleasing him well or being "with" him. - Gen. 5:22; 6:9; Lev. 26:3, 21; 1 Kings 11:33; Malachi 2:6.

We need to understand exactly what "omnipresence" means. It is not a word found in the Scriptures nor a concept explained or used there. It is a concept developed and explained by philosophers:

"Omnipresence - property (of deity) of being in all places and things .... Omnipresence is opposed, not only to total, but also to partial, absence, or localization - action upon this thing and not upon that" - p. 546, An Encyclopedia of Religion, Ferm (ed.), 1945.

In other words, an omnipresent God could not be "in" one thing and not "in" another! Or "with" one and not "with" another. nor can an omnipresent God be said to be in any one specific location (e.g., "in heaven") - see Ps. 33:13, 14; 115:3.

Therefore, you must not (if you are really saying God is omnipresent) say that God was with David, but not with Saul (1 Sam. 18:12). Obviously, having God "with" you does not indicate Omnipresence!

The scriptures often cited (John 6:56; 14:23) show persons accepting Jesus' sacrifice and living in harmony with his teachings and example - "He that eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, dwelleth in me, and I in him." (John 6:56) If you should insist on taking the last half of that scripture literally, then you would be equally justified in taking the first half absolutely literally!

If Jesus were omnipresent, as some say, he would already be in everyone and everything. He would literally be in the most blasphemous of unrepentant sinners. Instead, this scripture shows he is only "in" certain ones who truly accept his ransom sacrifice and act accordingly. (You cannot truly accept his sacrifice and then fail to act accordingly.)

Notice how harmony in purpose (not Omnipresence) is obviously meant here: not only is Jesus "in" these people, but they are "IN" HIM! The will and purpose of the one becomes the will and purpose of the other (see John 10:30 study paper - ONE), in perfect harmony, but those Christians are not showing their "Omnipresence" by being "IN" Jesus anymore than Jesus is showing "omnipresence" by being "in" them! They are "keeping his words" and are therefore "in" (in harmony with) him and his Father - John 14:23, 24. Those who are not "keeping his words" are not in harmony or union and therefore are not "in" him, and he is not "in" them. (This is certainly not Omnipresence!) Compare the "whole world" being "in" Satan - 1 John 5:19. The NIV interprets this as "the whole world is under the control of the evil one." ("in the power of the evil one" - RSV, AT, NASB, CBW, cf. MLB, LB).

Some trinitarians have shown a similar understanding of these figurative expressions when they speak of the necessity of accepting Jesus "so he can make himself at home with you" or "can come into your heart." If Jesus were really Omnipresent, he would already be in everyone's heart! But, as these trinitarians indicate, before you can truly be in harmony with him, you must accept him as Savior and Christ and be obedient to him and his God. Then, and only then, can he be "in" you, and you can be "in" him—this is certainly not omnipresence, but obvious figurative language! (Surely no one would ever insist on taking Phil. 1:7 literally where Paul says he has all the Christian brothers of Philippi "in my heart"!)

Notice how clearly a figurative meaning is intended at John 17:20-23: "(20) Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word; (21) that they may all be one [all those who believe the words of the Apostles concerning Jesus]; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us ... (22) And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one: (23) I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one." - KJV.

IF Jesus must be equally God, then we see Jesus in this scripture telling us that men are also to be equally God. And if Jesus is omnipresent because he is "in" others, then clearly Jesus is telling us here that real Christians are also to be Omnipresent! But trinitarians say omnipresence is an untransferrable quality of God alone! (Isn't it much better to admit the clear, figurative meaning of "in" and "abiding with," etc.?) - cf. Jn 17:20-23 AT, CBW.

Clearly Jesus is speaking of being "one" as being "in harmony with" just as his being "in" the Father (and Christians being "in" Jesus and "in" the Father) shows a complete harmony of purpose, not some mysterious non-scriptural "omnipresence"! If Christ were truly "omnipresent" and literally "dwells in us" and "in" everything, what are such scriptures as 2 Cor. 5:6-9 trying to tell us?

It might be profitable to consider why God deals with men through angels, prophets, etc. It would certainly be easier, faster, clearer, and more certain (if God were truly physically present in all things) to just speak directly and cut out the "middle men." Why, for example, take the time and bother to send an angel all the way to earth to appear in a burning bush to speak to Moses on behalf of God?

If God were omnipresent, he would have spoken directly from the burning bush himself! Or, even more likely, (if God were truly Omnipresent) He would have spoken out right in Moses' brain! ("Moses, this is Jehovah God speaking. To prove it is I, watch that bush burst into flames and continue to burn as long as I speak to you. Here's what I want you to do ....")

And why would Jesus (the only person who had been a man and who had also literally been in the physical presence of God - John 1:18; 1 John 4:12) have to declare the only true God (or "explain him" - NASB; "Make him known" - NEB, RSV, JB) - Jn 1:18? If God were omnipresent, he certainly wouldn't have to send another person from his physical presence in heaven to declare or make himself known. And why would Jesus bother to speak to John through an angel to send essential information to fellow Christians if he were also Omnipresent? - Rev. 1:1-3.

"Seen Me: Seen Father" - Jn 14:7-9

Now that we have a better understanding of what Bible writers intended by "abiding in" and someone or something being "in" someone else, we are ready to look at John 14:7-9.

John 14:1 - "believe in God, believe also in me." 14:7 - "If ye had known me, ye would have known my Father also: from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him. (:8) Philip saith unto him, Lord, show us the Father, and it sufficeth us. (:9) Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and dost thou not know me, Philip? He that hath seen me hath seen the Father; how sayest thou, Show us the Father? (:10) Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I say unto you I speak not from myself: but the Father abiding in me doeth his works." - ASV.

We can understand what Jesus actually intended when he said "I am in the Father and the Father is in me" and "the Father is abiding in me." And it is not very difficult to understand his saying, "If you had known me, you would have known my Father" since Jesus is in perfect harmony with the Father's will and purpose (i.e. "one," "in," etc.). But what about "he that has seen me has seen the Father"?

First, let's examine the relationship between "abiding in," "knowing," and "seeing" (horao in NT Greek) as commonly used figuratively in the Bible. 1 John 2:3, 5, 6 - "by this we know that we have come to know Him, if we keep His commandments .... By this we know that we are in Him: the one who says he abides in Him ought himself to walk in the same manner He walked [your purpose, actions words, and life must reflect his example]." - NASB. And 1 John 3:29, "he that keeps His [God's] commandments abides in Him, and He in him." - NASB. These scriptures show, again, the intended meaning for the figurative use of "abides."

Now notice the relationship between "know" and "see": 3 John 11 - "the one who does good is of God; the one who does evil has not seen [horao] God." And 1 John 3:6 - "No one who abides in Him sins; no one who sins has seen [horao] Him or knows Him." - NASB.

We can see, then, that horao ("see") can mean the same thing as "abiding in" or "knowing," and all three may have the figurative meaning of agreement in purpose and will with someone else.

The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia, vol. 4, p. 380, tells us:

"What is seen in a vision is a revelation from God. Statements that human beings have seen or will see God Himself do not refer to a perception of a physical aspect of God by human physical senses but a process of coming to some amount of understanding of God, often just a simple realization of His greatness or some other aspect of His nature, either by a revelatory vision (Isa. 6:15; Ezk. 1:26-28), … or by their acquaintance with Jesus Christ (Jn 14:9, cf. 1:18)." – Eerdmans, 1991.

The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Vol. 3, 1986 printing, Zondervan, pp. 513, 515, 518, explains the meanings of horao.

"Horao" means "... become aware (Gen. 37:1). (b) figuratively it comes to be used of intellectual or spiritual perception .... It also means ... attend to, know or have experienced (Deut. 11:2), or be concerned about something (Gen. 37:14; Is. 5:12)." - p. 513. - - "Besides the general meaning of to know, horao and its derivatives can mean to obtain knowledge". - p. 515.

This trinitarian reference also states:

"For the NT God is utterly invisible (Jn 6:46; 1 Tim. 1:17; 6:16; Col. 1:15) ... yet the resurrection narratives especially stress that the risen Christ is visible." - p. 518.

Professor Joseph H. Thayer (who was "the dean of New Testament scholars in America" - Dictionary of American Biography, Vol. IX) in his Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament ("a standard in the field") also defines horao with similar meanings and specifically tells us that John 14:7, 9 is in the category of "2. to see with the mind, to perceive, to KNOW."

In discussing this meaning of "horao," Thayer writes:

"to know God's will, 3 John 11; from the intercourse and influence of Christ to have come to see (know) God's majesty, saving purposes, and WILL, Jn. xiv. 7, 9". - p. 451, Baker Book House, 1984 printing.

We can understand, then, why the very trinitarian The NIV Study Bible, 1985, Zondervan, explains John 14:7 this way:

"Once more Jesus stresses the intimate connection between the Father and himself. Jesus brought a full revelation of the Father (cf. 1:18), so that the apostles had real knowledge of him." - footnote for John 14:7.

Trinitarian minister and acclaimed New Testament scholar, Dr. William Barclay, also comments on John 14:7-9:

"The Jews [including Jesus, of course, and those to whom he spoke] would count it as an article of faith that no man had seen God at any time .... To see Jesus is to see what God is like." - p. 159. "`He who has seen me has seen the Father,' Jesus is the revelation of God." - p. 161.

And,

"The danger of the Christian faith is that we may set up Jesus as a kind of secondary God. But Jesus himself insists that the things he said and the things he did did not come from his own initiative or his own power or his own knowledge but from God. His words were God's voice speaking to men; His deeds were God's power flowing through him to men. He was the channel by which God came to men." - The Daily Study Bible Series: The Gospel of John, pp. 159, 161, 162, Vol. 2, The Westminster Press, 1975.

So there is no real reason to insist that John 14:7, 9 shows Jesus as being equally God with his Father. The probability is that, in harmony with the usage of the time, Jesus was merely saying that what he spoke came from God, and what he did is what God directed. He meant that understanding what he did and said was like knowing ("seeing") God* (as, in a similar sense, those who literally saw angels sent by God and speaking God's words were said to have "seen God" - see the SF study paper). Jesus is totally in harmony with ("one" with) the Father in purpose (see the ONE study paper) so that we can "see" the Father's will in Jesus.

As in all other "Jesus is equally God" evidence, we find that the trinitarian "proof" is a scripture that can honestly be translated or interpreted in at least one other way which would prove no such thing!

We never find a statement clearly stating that "Jesus is equally and fully God" in the entire Bible. And yet other such essential knowledge that leads to eternal life is clearly and repeatedly emphasized: "Jesus is the Christ [Messiah]," "our savior and king" - the one who appears before God in heaven in our behalf, the one through whom we must approach God. Surely this most important information in the Bible of exactly who God is and exactly who Jesus is would not be hidden from us in the slightest degree!

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Note:

Although Watchtower Society (WTS) research and scholarship is usually at least the equal of (and often superior to) that of other sources, I have tried to rely most heavily on other sources in Christendom itself (preferably trinitarian) or my own independent research to provide evidence disproving the trinitarian `proof' being examined in this paper. The reason is, of course, that this paper is meant to provide evidence needed by non-Witnesses, and many of them will not accept anything written by the WTS. They truly believe it is false, even dishonest. Therefore some of the information presented in this study paper, all of which helps disprove specific trinitarian "proofs," may be in disagreement with current WTS teachings in some specifics (especially when I have presented a number of alternates). Jehovah's Witnesses should research the most recent WTS literature on the subject or scripture in question before using this information with others. – RDB.

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NOTE

*

Origen, the greatest and most knowledgeable scholar of the NT Greek explained John 14:9:

"But ... God is invisible .... Whereas, on the contrary, God, the Father of Christ, is said to be seen, because `he who sees the Son,' he says, `sees also the Father.' This certainly would press us hard [to explain], were the expression not understood by us more correctly of understanding, and not of seeing. For he who has understood the Son will understand the Father also." - p. 277, vol. iv, The Ante-Nicene Fathers, Eerdmans Publishing.