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Monday, February 22, 2010

How Do We Know That the Garden of Eden Was a Real Place? Where Was it Located?

How Do We Know That the Garden of Eden Was a Real Place?

True Christians should base all of their beliefs on the Bible. So when Jesus Christ pointed to the Genesis account as true history, we need to take that as fact.

Jesus spoke of Adam and Eve as real people. At Mark 10:5, 6, "Jesus said to them:...“From [the] beginning of creation ‘He made them male and female." He referred to their marriage when explaining Jehovah’s standard of monogamy. (Matthew 19:3-6)

Also, Luke’s Gospel account traces Jesus’ genealogy all the way back to Adam. (Luke 3:23-38)

If they never existed and the garden in which they lived was a mere myth, then either Jesus was deceived or he was a liar. Neither conclusion is feasible! Jesus had been in heaven, watching as the tragedy unfolded in the garden. What evidence could be more convincing than that?

In reality, disbelief in the Genesis account undermines faith in Jesus.

Also see: 

Was the garden of Eden a real place? (w11 1/1 pp. 4-9; Watchtower Online Library)

Why can we believe that the garden of Eden was a real place? (w11 4/15 p. 28; Watchtower Online Library)

Why Eden Matters to You (w11 1/1 pp. 9-11; Watchtower Online Library)


Where Was the Garden of Eden Located?

The following is an excerpt of the WBTS publication, Insight on the Scriptures, Vol. 1; Eden; Location of Eden:

The original site of the garden of Eden is conjectural. The principal means of identifying its geographic location is the Bible’s description of the river “issuing out of Eden,” which thereafter divided into four “heads,” producing the rivers named as the Euphrates, Hiddekel, Pishon, and Gihon. (Ge 2:10-14) The Euphrates (Heb., Perath′) is well known, and “Hiddekel” is the name used for the Tigris in ancient inscriptions. (Compare also Da 10:4.) The other two rivers, the Pishon and the Gihon, however, are unidentified.—See CUSH No. 2; HAVILAH No. 1.

Some, such as Calvin and Delitzsch, have argued in favor of Eden’s situation somewhere near the head of the Persian Gulf in Lower Mesopotamia, approximately at the place where the Tigris and the Euphrates draw near together. They associated the Pishon and Gihon with canals between these streams. However, this would make these rivers tributaries, rather than branches dividing off from an original source. The Hebrew text points, rather, to a location in the mountainous region N of the Mesopotamian plains, the area where the Euphrates and Tigris rivers have their present sources. Thus The Anchor Bible (1964), in its notes on Genesis 2:10, states: “In Heb[rew] the mouth of the river is called ‘end’ (Josh xv 5, xviii 19); hence the plural of roʼs ‘head’ must refer here to the upper course. . . . This latter usage is well attested for the Akk[adian] cognate resu.” The fact that the Euphrates and Tigris rivers do not now proceed from a single source, as well as the impossibility of definitely determining the identification of the Pishon and Gihon rivers, is possibly explained by the effects of the Noachian Flood, which undoubtedly altered considerably the topographical features of the earth, filling in the courses of some rivers and creating others.

The traditional location for the garden of Eden has long been suggested to have been a mountainous area some 225 km (140 mi) SW of Mount Ararat and a few kilometers S of Lake Van, in the eastern part of modern Turkey. That Eden may have been surrounded by some natural barrier, such as mountains, could be suggested by the fact that cherubs are stated to have been stationed only at the E of the garden, from which point Adam and Eve made their exit.—Ge 3:24.

After Adam’s banishment from the paradisaic garden, with no one to “cultivate it and to take care of it,” it may be assumed that it merely grew up in natural profusion with only the animals to inhabit its confines until it was obliterated by the surging waters of the Flood, its location lost to man except for the divine record of its existence.—Ge 2:15.
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In any event, the Garden of Eden most likely was located in the Middle Eastern region.

Sunday, February 21, 2010

How can Jesus be God when the scriptures clearly show how Jesus and God are NOT co-equal in knowledge?

The reason is because Jesus is not God. Jesus never claimed to have the same knowledge as God the Father:

"Concerning that day and hour nobody knows, neither the angels of the heavens nor the Son, but only the Father." (Mt. 24:36)

"Jesus went on to say to them: “Most truly I say to YOU, The Son cannot do a single thing of his own initiative, but only what he beholds the Father doing." (John 5:19)

"What I teach is not mine, but belongs to him that sent me." (John 7:16)

"Jesus said: “I do nothing of my own initiative; but just as the Father taught me I speak these things." (John 8:28)

"For from God I came forth and am here. Neither have I come of my own initiative at all, but that One sent me forth." (John 8:42)

"I cannot do a single thing of my own initiative; just as I hear, I judge; and the judgment that I render is righteous, because I seek, not my own will, but the will of him that sent me." (John 5:30)

"The Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28)


Some may argue that Jesus only said these things because he was only a man when he said them. But even after Jesus went to heaven he was described as having a subordinate role to God:

"But I want YOU to know that the head of every man is the Christ; in turn the head of a woman is the man; in turn the HEAD OF CHRIST IS GOD." (1 Cor. 11:3)

For more, see:
Is Jesus God?

Why Don't Jehovah's Witnesses Believe in the Trinity? (VIDEO)

Trinity Indexes

Examining Trinity 'Proof Texts'

Search For Bible Truths - ARCHIVE 

Scriptures Index

Search For Bible Truths - Search Guide  

If Jehovah's Witnesses believe that only 144,000 people go to heaven, then wouldn't making more Jehovah's Witnesses reduce their own chances of getting into heaven?

While it is true that according to Revelation 14:1-3, the apostle John wrote that the number of those "bought from the earth" to go to heaven is 144,000, the premise of this question is faulty because the Bible clearly shows that the vast majority of mankind have the prospect of living on into, or of being resurrected in the future to life in Paradise on earth - not in heaven:

"But the meek ones themselves will possess the earth, And they will indeed find their exquisite delight in the abundance of peace." (Ps. 37:11)

"Blessed are the meek: for they shall inherit the earth." (Matthew 5:5 KJV)
For more, see:
What Do Jehovah's Witnesses Believe Regarding Physical And Heavenly Afterlives? The 144,000? (VIDEO)

Are the paradise conditions described in Isa. 11:6-9 a literal or figurative promise?

If true Christians will live on Paradise Earth forever, won't over-population become a problem?

What is God's purpose for the earth?

Search For Bible Truths - ARCHIVE 

Scriptures Index

Search For Bible Truths - Search Guide  

Saturday, February 20, 2010

Does the method of preaching from house to house have its basis in the Scriptures?

Yes.

When Jesus sent forth the apostles to preach, he instructed them: “Into whatever city or village you enter, search out who in it is deserving.” (Acts 5:42) Jesus told them to go to people’s homes, saying: “When you are entering into the house, greet the household; and if the house is deserving, let the peace you wish it come upon it.” (Matt. 10:11-14) These instructions make clear that as the apostles “went through the territory from village to village, declaring the good news,” they were to take the initiative to visit people in their homes. (Luke 9:6)

Some religions have acknowledged the Christian obligation to preach in public places and from house to house, although this is often left to a limited group of missionaries or clergy to fulfill... not every member.

However, every member who is identified as a JEHOVAH'S WITNESS heeds Jesus' instructions when he told his followers to "make disciples of people of all the nations," and when Jesus himself set the example by "journeying from city to city and from village to village, preaching and declaring the good news of the kingdom of God." (Matthew 28:19, 20; Luke 8:1)

As of the time of this posting:
Jehovah's Witnesses print the 1st & 2nd most widely distributed magazines in the world.
-Wikipedia; "The Watchtower"; Heading: "Distribution", pars.1&2
-Wikipedia; "Awake!"; Heading: "Publishing", par. 2

For more, see:
Worldwide publishing and translating

Report of Jehovah's Witnesses Worldwide

Official Jehovah's Witnesses Web Site, On-line Publications and Public Information

Sites and Pages in Defense of Jehovah's Witnesses

Search For Bible Truths - ARCHIVE 

Scriptures Index

Search For Bible Truths - Search Guide  

What is the difference in the meaning of "ru´ach" (spirit) in Genesis chapter 1 and 2 in the Bible?

The Hebrew ru´ach (spirit) is believed to come from a root having the same meaning as the Greek pneu´ma (spirit) which comes from pne´o, meaning “breathe or blow". Ru´ach and pneu´ma, then, basically mean “breath” but have extended meanings beyond that basic sense.

They can also mean wind; the vital force in living creatures; one’s spirit; spirit persons, including God and his angelic creatures; and God’s active force, or holy spirit. (Compare Koehler and Baumgartner’s Lexicon in Veteris Testamenti Libros, Leiden, 1958, pp. 877-879; Brown, Driver, and Briggs’ Hebrew and English Lexicon of the Old Testament, 1980, pp. 924-926; Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, edited by G. Friedrich, translated by G. Bromiley, 1971, Vol. VI, pp. 332-451.) All these meanings have something in common: They all refer to that which is invisible to human sight and which gives evidence of force in motion. Such invisible force is capable of producing visible effects.

There is another Hebrew word, nesha·mah´ (Ge 2:7), which also means “breath,” but it is more limited in range of meaning than ru´ach.

For more, see:
Search For Bible Truths - ARCHIVE 

Scriptures Index

Search For Bible Truths - Search Guide  

Friday, February 19, 2010

Why is the word "Hell" an unsatisfactory translation of the original Hebrew and Greek Bible words "She´ohl" and "Hai´des"?

Concerning the use of “hell” to translate the original words (Hebrew she´ohl´ and the Greek hai´des) from the Hebrew and Greek, Vine’s Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words (1981, Vol. 2, p. 187) says:

“HADES . . . It corresponds to ‘Sheol’ in the O.T. [Old Testament]. In the A.V. of the O.T. [Old Testament] and N.T. [New Testament], it has been UNHAPPILY RENDERED ‘Hell.’”

Collier’s Encyclopedia (1986, Vol. 12, p. 28) says concerning “Hell”:

“First it stands for the Hebrew Sheol of the Old Testament and the Greek Hades of the Septuagint and New Testament. Since Sheol in Old Testament times referred SIMPLY TO THE ABODE OF THE DEAD and suggested no moral distinctions, the word ‘hell,’ as understood today, IS NOT A HAPPY TRANSLATION.”

Why it is an unsatisfactory translation of these original Bible words is because of the way that the word “hell” is understood today. It is not a fiery place of torment. Rather, as Webster’s Third New International Dictionary, unabridged, under “Hell” says:

“fr[om] . . . helan to conceal.”

The word “hell” originally conveyed no thought of heat or torment but simply of a ‘covered over or concealed place.’ In the old English dialect the expression “helling potatoes” meant, not to roast them, but simply to place the potatoes in the ground or in a cellar.

A good scriptural example is found at Acts 2:27 in the KJV where it mentions Jesus as having been in "hell":

"Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption."

Clearly, Jesus was not in a fiery place of torment. Rather, this word means, as the KJV New Testament Greek Lexicon describes, "the realm of the dead; later use of this word: the grave, death."

For more, see:
What is Hell as mentioned in the Bible?

What is the definition of Hell?

Why is there confusion as to what the Bible says about hell?

Do wicked and upright people go to hell?

Would a loving God really punish humans with a fiery Hell?

Does anyone ever get out of the Bible hell?

Search For Bible Truths - ARCHIVE 

Scriptures Index

Search For Bible Truths - Search Guide  

What is God's purpose for the earth?

The Bible says that God made Earth for a reason...for it to be inhabited by humans:

"For thus saith Jehovah that created the heavens, the God that formed the earth and made it, that established it and created it not a waste, that formed it TO BE INHABITED." (Isaiah 45:18) ASV

God’s original purpose for mankind was connected with the earth (Genesis 1:28), not with heaven:

"The heavens are the heavens of Jehovah; But the earth hath he given to the children of men." (Ps. 115:16) ASV

Even Jesus himself said that "the mild-tempered ones...will inherit the earth" (Matthew 5:5)

For more, see:
What Is God’s Purpose for the Earth?

Who Will Inherit The Earth?

Eternal Happiness—In Heaven or on Earth?

Search For Bible Truths - ARCHIVE 

Scriptures Index

Search For Bible Truths - Search Guide