Is the New World Translation the only Bible to phrase John 1:1c as "the Word was A God"?

The NWT is not the only Bible to phrase it this way:

1808: “and the word was a god.” The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text.

1864: “and a god was the word.” The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.

1928: “and the Word was a divine being.” La Bible du Centenaire, L’Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.

1935: “and the Word was divine.” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.

1946: “and of a divine kind was the Word.” Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.

1958: “and the Word was a God.” The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.

1975: “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.

1978: “and godlike kind was the Logos.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.

Even Origen, the most knowledgeable of the early Christian Greek-speaking scholars, tells us that John 1:1c actually means "the Word [logos] was a god". - "Origen's Commentary on John," Book I, ch. 42 - Bk II, ch.3.

Jehovah's Witnesses have been criticized for allowing the indefinite article (a) at John 1:1c. However, the true fault lies with their critics. It is the other way around...the absence of the indefinite article at John 1:1c has been purposely mistranslated in most Trinitarian-produced Bibles to fit their doctrine that Jesus is God. (See Is Jesus God?)

For much more, see
If Jesus is not God, how can he be a god?

NWT - John 1:1

The Coptic Language and John 1:1

How does the Coptic text render John 1:1?

John 1:1c - English translation: "The Word was a god."

What About Trinity "Proof Texts"? (Scroll down to "The Word Was God")

IF God is a trinity, then how is it that “the Word (Jesus) was WITH God”? (John 1:1)

DEFinite John 1:1c

QUAL ("Qualitative" John 1:1c)

John 1:1c Primer

SEPTGOD (John 1:1c and the Septuagint)

God and gods